ROIC & P/E (INTRINSIC) REVERSAL DIRECTION
Subject:
ROIC & P/E (INTRINSIC) REVERSAL DIRECTION
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We know that the Return will reverse from ROIC to a Mean Value in the long run.
How do we deal with it?
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What is the Mean ?
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1.
The mean should be value constructive and more than Capital Cost:
ROIChigh < RETURNmean < Capital Cost
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For the Capital Cost, I would choose CICC & CTAC for the respective Invested Capital and Total Assets, instead of WACC.
WACC is not fundamental.
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2.
The reversal could be broken down into five stages:
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RETURN REVERSAL DIRECTION: 5 Stages
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ROIC ➡️ √(ROIC × ROA) ➡️ ROA ➡️ √(ROIC × CICC) ➡️ √(ROA × CTAC) ➡️ ⁴√(ROIC × ROA × CICC × CTAC)
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If I assume the RETURNmean determines the Intrinsic Value in Linear,
then,
P/E (INTRINSIC) REVERSAL DIRECTION will equal RETURN REVERSAL DIRECTION.
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P/E (INTRINSIC) REVERSAL DIRECTION: 5 Stages
ROIC ➡️ √(ROIC × ROA) ➡️ ROA ➡️ √(ROIC × CICC) ➡️ √(ROA × CTAC) ➡️ ⁴√(ROIC × ROA × CICC × CTAC)
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The Long Term Return may land and linger on one of the FIVE below:
√(ROIC × ROA)
ROA
√(ROIC × CICC)
√(ROA × CTAC) : P/E (Bottom Valley 1)
⁴√(ROIC × ROA × CICC × CTAC) : P/E (Bottom Valley 2)
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Which one?
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No idea.
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But intuitively I would say:
(1)
The more competitive advantageous a company is, the higher the P/E (Intrinsic) will land and linger on in the long run.
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(2)
Any Quoted P/E Below ROIC are undervalued.
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(3)
The degree of Undervaluedness or MOS deepens when Quoted P/E goes down the line.
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(4)
⁴√(ROIC × ROA × CICC × CTAC) & √(ROA × CTAC) are the “Two P/E (Bottom Valley)s” with the highest MOS or Undervaluedness.
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(5)
Any Quoted P/E which is less than the “Two P/E (Bottom Valley)s” are “Abyssly Undervalued”, Munger suggests ALL-IN.

PDD
Fin.2025.Q3.Sep.TTM
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P/E Bottom Valley 1
= √(ROA × CTAC)
= √(16.6638511789×8.66269341)
= 12.0147340292
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P/E Bottom Valley 2
= ⁴√(ROIC × ROA × CICC × CTAC)
= (25.4354775147×16.6638511789×5.14237493×8.66269341)^(1÷4)
= 11.7221692844
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EPS (Basic)
= USD 10.289979567